NAME:
.
CARESA EDUCATION
SERVICES
TRIAL HIGHER SCHOOL
CERTIFICATE EXAMINATION
Practice paper 2
PHYSICS
2 UNIT
Time
allowed Three hours
(Plus
5 minutes reading time)
DIRECTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Section I Core
*Attempt
ALL questions.
*Part A 15 multiple choice questions, each worth 1 mark.
Mark your answers in pencil on the Answer Sheet provided.
*Part B Core questions worth a total of 60 marks.
Answer this part in spaces provided in your examination book.
*Write your name on your question book for part A, your answer sheet for part A and your question and answer book for part B.
Section II Option
* Answer one option only.
* Questions are provided for the Astrophysics and Quanta to Quarks options only.
* The option is worth 25 marks.
* Answer the option on separate paper.
* Write your name on each option answer sheet.
* You may ask for extra paper if you need it.
* A periodic Table, list of formulae and Data Sheet are provided at the back of this paper.
PART A.
Questions 1 15 are worth 1 mark each.
Mark your answers on the Answer Sheet provided.
Select the alternative A, B, C or D that best answers the question.
1. A rocket is fired and after the fuel runs out follows a parabolic path. Which of the following represent the velocity and acceleration of the rocket at maximum height?
2. An astronaut on the International Space Station was orbiting the Earth and was apparently weightless inside the space station. The reason the astronaut appeared weightless was
A.
The
astronaut and space station were outside the influence of the Earths gravity.
B.
The
gravitational force on the space station was equal to the gravitational force
on the astronaut.
C.
The space
station and the astronaut were falling at the same rate.
D.
The space
station spins to create artificial gravity equal and opposite to that of the
Earth.
- A rocket is fired and is accelerating
vertically upwards. Which of the following statements is correct?
A.
Its
potential energy and its kinetic energy are both increasing.
B.
Its
kinetic energy is increasing but its potential energy is decreasing.
C.
Its
kinetic energy is decreasing but its potential energy is increasing.
D.
Its
potential energy and its kinetic energy are both decreasing.
- Which of the following represents the slingshot
effect?
A.
The use of
a high-powered cannon to launch satellites directly into space.
B.
A rocket
swinging past a planet and gaining some of the momentum of the planet to
increase its speed.
C.
The launch
of satellites by the space shuttle by a spring-type mechanism resembling a
slingshot.
D.
A
spacecraft approaching the Earth at too shallow an angle and bouncing off the
Earths atmosphere back into space.
- An astronaut left Earth and was traveling
away at 0.9 times the speed of light. What would the astronaut observe if
he was able to observe a clock on Earth?
A.
The Earth
clock was running faster than his own clock.
B.
The Earth
clock was running slower than his own clock.
C.
The Earth
clock and his own clock were running at the same speed.
D.
Depending
on the observer, both clocks were running slower than each other.
- Which of the following most closely
describes the motor effect?
A.
A rotating
magnet will cause an aluminium disk to rotate.
B.
A magnet
will produce eddy currents in a rotating aluminium disk.
C.
A current
in the coil of a voltmeter will cause it to turn.
D.
Eddy
currents in an induction cook top will cause it to heat up.
- An ideal step-up transformer has an input
voltage of 12 volts in the primary coil and an input of 1000 watts of
power in the primary coil. How much power is dissipated in the secondary
coil?
A.
More than
1000 watts.
B.
Less than
1000 watts.
C.
Zero.
D.
1000
watts.
- The primary coil of a step-up transformer
was connected to a switch and a
12-volt source of direct current. The secondary coil was connected
to a voltmeter. What would be the reading on the voltmeter when the switch
was closed?
A.
A steady
reading of more than 12 volts.
B.
A steady
reading of less than 12 volts.
C.
Zero.
D.
A very
brief reading that would immediately drop to zero.
- A green laser and a red laser both have a
power output of 1 watt and shine onto a metal surface. Which of the
following statements is most accurate.
A.
The green
laser produces more photons per second than the red laser.
B.
The red
laser produces more photons per second than the green laser.
C.
The red
laser and the green laser produce the same number of photons per second.
D. The number of photons produced per second depends on the threshold frequency of the metal.
- A rectangular coil containing a
galvanometer was pulled through a magnetic field at constant velocity.
Which graph below correctly indicated the reading on the galvanometer as
the coil enters the magnetic field, travels through it at constant velocity and
then completely leaves the magnetic field?
A.
B.
C.
D.
- A solenoid AB was connected to a
galvanometer as shown. The south pole of a magnet was moved away from end
A of the solenoid. What would be the polarity of the magnetic field
induced in the solenoid and which way would the induced current flow
through the galvanometer?
A.
End A of
the solenoid would become a north pole and current would flow through the
galvanometer from A to B.
B. End
A of the solenoid would become a north pole and current would flow through the
galvanometer from B to A.
C. End
A of the solenoid would become a south pole and current would flow through the
galvanometer from A to B.
D. End
A of the solenoid would become a south pole and current would flow through the
galvanometer from B to A.
- Heinrich Hertz was the first to produce
radio waves. How did he do this?
A.
He shone
light onto a metal surface.
B.
He used a
hot filament to heat the cathode of a vacuum tube.
C.
He shone
sunlight onto an emitting antenna.
D.
He used an
induction coil to produce sparks across a high potential difference.
- In Thomsons experiment to find the charge
to mass ratio, he fired cathode rays through an electric and a magnetic
field so that they were undeflected. Which of the following statements
about the electric and magnetic fields is most accurate.
A.
The
electric and magnetic fields are equal.
B.
The
electric and magnetic fields are equal and opposite.
C.
The
electric field is stronger than the magnetic field to counteract the pull of
gravity.
D.
The
electric and magnetic fields are at right angles to each other.
- What is the main reason that silicon
rather than germanium is used in most present-day solid state devices?
A.
Silicon is
more abundant than germanium.
B.
Silicon is
more easily purified than germanium.
C.
Silicon
loses its semiconducting properties at a higher temperature than germanium.
D.
Silicon is
a better conductor than germanium.
- What would you expect to happen if a
positively charged electroscope and a negatively charged electroscope were
both left in bright sunlight?
A.
The positively
charged electroscope would discharge before the negatively charged one.
B.
The
negatively charged electroscope would discharge before the positively charged
one.
C.
Both
electroscopes would discharge at the same rate.
D.
The
negatively charged electroscope would increase its negative charge.
NAME: .
PART B
The marks allocated to each question are shown.
Answer this Part in the spaces provided in your examination book
Show all necessary working.
Marks may be awarded for relevant working.
- A large cannon was used to launch an
object into space.
(i)
An object
can escape from the Earths gravitational field when the sum of its kinetic
energy and its gravitational potential energy is greater than zero. Given that
the radius of the Earth is 6.38 x 106m, show that the escape
velocity of the Earth is around 11.2 kms-1. (2 marks)
.
.
.
.
(ii)
If the length
of the barrel of the cannon is 100 m, calculate the acceleration that an object
must have in the barrel to reach the Earths escape velocity. (2 marks)
.
.
.
.
(iii)
Would it
be possible for a cannon to fire an object into orbit around the Earth? Justify
your answer. (2 marks)
.
.
.
(iv)
Explain
why this method would not be suitable for launching manned spacecraft to the
Moon. (1 mark)
.
.
- You learnt in The Cosmic Engine that a
main-sequence star will expand to become a red giant when the hydrogen in its
core has been depleted.
Compare the gravity at the surface of a main-sequence star to that at
the surface of a red giant of the same mass but 100 times the diameter. (2
marks)
.
.
.
.
- A rocket was launched vertically up and 5
seconds later the fuel ran out. The rocket hit the ground 5.75 seconds
later, i.e. 10.75 seconds after launching. Draw a graph showing the
velocity of the rocket as a function of time for the 10.75 seconds of its
flight. (numerical values not required for velocity.) (3 marks)
- The Michelson-Morely experiment was an
unsuccessful attempt to demonstrate the existence of the aether.
(i)
Why did scientists
at the time think that the aether existed? (1 mark)
.
.
(ii)
What
method did Michelson and Morely use in an attempt to demonstrate its existence?
(3 marks)
.
.
.
.
.
.
(iii)
What is
the significance of attempts to demonstrate the existence of the aether being
unsuccessful? (1 mark)
.
.
- Observers on Earth noted that a spacecraft
completed a return journey of 8.4 light years to Alpha Centauri and back
in 10 years.
(i)
At what
fraction of the speed of light was the spacecraft traveling? (1 mark)
.
.
(ii)
What time
had elapsed for the journey according to observers on the spacecraft? (2 marks)
.
.
.
.
- A rotating drum in a tannery is powered by
a large, D.C. electric motor with a variable resistance in series with it.
When the motor is starting up, a large resistance is applied and the
resistance is gradually reduced to zero as the motor reaches its normal
operating speed.
Explain why a large resistance is needed as the motor is starting up but
no resistance is required when the motor is operating normally. (2 marks)
.
.
.
.
- Describe an investigation you have
performed to model the structure of a transformer to demonstrate how
secondary voltage is produced. Include at least two safety precautions
that you carried out.(6 marks)
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
- Two parallel wires, each 1.0 m long and
separated by 1.0 cm, each carry currents of 10.0 amps in the same
direction.
Draw a graph showing how the force between the two wires changes as the
distance between them is increased to 10.0 cm. (5 marks)
- (i) Explain the difference between the use
of slip rings and a split-ring commutator in electric generators. (2
marks)
.
.
.
.
(ii) Both of these require brushes. What is the function of the
brushes? (1 mark)
.
.
- Assess the effects of the development of
A.C. generators on the environment. (4 marks)
.
.
.
.
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.
- Discuss how shortcomings in available
communication technology lead to an increased knowledge of the properties
of materials with particular reference to the invention of transistors. (3
marks)
.
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.
.
27. A beam of U.V. radiation of wavelength 300
nm was shone onto a metal and photoelectrons were emitted.
(i)
Calculate
the energy of each photon of U.V. radiation.
(2 marks)
.
.
.
.
(ii)
State what
would happen if you
(a) increased the intensity by shining two beams of
U.V. radiation onto the metal and (1 mark)
.
.
(b) used U.V.
radiation of wavelength 200 nm instead of 300 nm. (1 mark)
.
.
- Sir William Henry Bragg and his son Sir
William Lawrence Bragg were able to determine the separation of atoms in
the crystal structure of nickel. Describe how they did this. (2 marks)
.
.
.
.
- Describe how superconductors and the
effects of magnetic fields have been applied to develop maglev trains. (2
marks)
.
.
.
.
- Discuss the BCS theory of
superconductivity. (4 marks)
.
.
.
.
.
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.
- Describe the structure of a conductor that
allows electrons to flow freely.
(2 marks)
.
.
.
.
- Compare the movement of electrons and
holes in p & n semiconductors.
(3 marks)
.
.
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OPTIONS.
ATTEMPT ONE OPTION ONLY
Each
option is worth 25 marks.
Question 33-ASTROPHYSICS (25 marks)
(a)
Identify a
feature of the Moon that Galileo observed with his telescope. (1 mark)
(b)
Discuss
the problems associated with ground-based astronomy in terms of resolution and
absorption of radiation and atmospheric distortion. (4 marks)
(c)
Beta
Centauri is 120Pc away from Earth. Calculate its trigonometric parallax in
seconds of arc. (1 mark)
(d)
Compare
the appearance and production of emission and absorption spectra with that of a
continuous black body spectrum. (4 marks)
(e)
How is the
colour index of a star determined and in what ways is it useful? (2 marks)
(f)
A distant
star shows two similar spectra, one being red shifted and the other blue
shifted. Explain how a star can give this type of spectrum. (2 marks)
(g)
Explain
how to determine the distance to a star by using spectroscopic parallax. (3
marks)
(h)
The two
brightest stars in the Southern Cross constellation are Alpha Crucis that has
an apparent magnitude of 0.9 and Beta Crucis that has an apparent magnitude of
1.26.
a. How much brighter is Alpha Crucis than Beta
Crucis? (2 marks)
b.
Given that
Alpha Crucis is 80 Pc away, calculate its absolute magnitude. (2 marks)
(i) State two ways that a
globular cluster differs from an open cluster. (1 mark)
(j)
The
following is a Hertzsprung-Russell diagram of a globular cluster. Explain how
such a diagram can be used to determine the age of the cluster. (3 marks)
H-R
Diagram of Globular Cluster
Question 34-From Quanta to Quarks (25 marks)
(a)
State one similarity
between the Bohr model of the atom and the
(b)
How did
Bohr modify the
(c)
The Bohr
model of the atom was unable to completely explain the Zeeman effect. What is
the Zeeman effect? (1 mark)
(d) The table below lists the main features of
a nuclear reactor. Copy and complete the table by stating the function of each
component and a suitable material for each. (4 marks)
|
Component |
Function |
Suitable Material |
|
Fuel Rods |
|
|
|
Moderator |
|
|
|
Control Rods |
|
|
|
Coolant |
|
|
(e)
Radium, 88Ra226
undergoes alpha decay with a half-life of 1620 years to produce radon, 86Rn222.
The respective masses are: 88Ra226 = 226.09600u, 86Rn222
= 222.08690u, 2He4 = 4.00260u. Calculate the mass defect
and energy released in the alpha decay of a single atom of radium226. (2 marks)
(f)
Name an
isotope used in agriculture and describe its use. (2 marks)
(g)
Define
diffraction. (1 mark)
(h)
Davisson
and Germer demonstrated electron diffraction in 1927. How did they do this? (3
marks)
(i)
What
proposal, put forward by de Broglie, did electron diffraction support? (1 mark)
(j)
How did de
Broglies hypothesis explain the stability of orbits in the Bohr atom? (2
marks)
(k)
Assess the
significance of the Manhattan Project to society. (6 marks)
NAME:
.
CARESA EDUCATION SERVICES
TRIAL HIGHER
SCHOOL CERTIFICATE EXAMINATION
Practice
paper 2
PHYSICS
2 UNIT
ANSWER BOOK
*Part A 15 multiple choice questions, each worth 1 mark.
Choose the best answer from the alternatives offered and indicate your choice by shading in the appropriate spaces below.
A B C D
Q.1. 0 0 0 0
Q.2. 0 0 0 0
Q.3. 0 0 0 0
Q.4. 0 0 0 0
Q.5. 0 0 0 0
Q.6. 0 0 0 0
Q.7. 0 0 0 0
Q.8. 0 0 0 0
Q.9. 0 0 0 0
Q.10. 0 0 0 0
Q.11. 0 0 0 0
Q.12. 0 0 0 0
Q.13. 0 0 0 0
Q.14. 0 0 0 0
Q.15. 0 0 0 0
(l)
Discuss
the key features and components of the standard model of matter. (6 marks)
Cockroft and Wilson bombarded
lithium atoms with protons in a cloud chamber.Two alpha particles resulted from
each collision. Calculate the mass defect and the energy released from each
collision.
3Li7 = 7.01436u, 2He4
= 4.00151u, 1H1 = 1.00728u.
Platinum, 78Pt192
undergoes nuclear decay as it emits an alpha particle to produce osmium, 76Os188.
Calculate the mass defect and binding energy from the decay of one atom of 78Pt192.
78Pt192 = 191.9614u, 76Os188
= 187.9560u, 2He4 = 4.00151u
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