NAME:
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CARESA EDUCATION SERVICES
TRIAL HIGHER SCHOOL
CERTIFICATE EXAMINATION
Practice Paper 1
PHYSICS
2 UNIT
Time allowed
Three hours
(Plus 5 minutes
reading time)
DIRECTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Section I Core
*Attempt ALL
questions.
*Part A 15 multiple choice questions, each worth 1 mark.
Mark your answers in pencil on the Answer Sheet provided.
*Part B Core questions worth a total of 60 marks.
Answer this part in spaces provided in your examination book.
*Write your name on your question book for part A, your answer sheet for part A and your question and answer book for part B.
Section II Option
* Answer one option only.
* Questions are provided for the Astrophysics and Quanta to Quarks options only.
* The option is worth 25 marks.
* Answer the option on separate paper.
* Write your name on each option answer sheet.
* You may ask for extra paper if you need it.
* A periodic Table, list of formulae and Data Sheet are provided at the back of this paper.
* For answers and more reference material please visit the website www.caresa.com.au
PART A.
Questions 1 15 are worth 1 mark each.
Mark your answers on the Answer Sheet provided.
Select the alternative A, B, C or D that best answers the question.
- An object has a weight of 49N on Earth. What is its mass and weight on Jupiter where g = 25 ms-2?
|
|
Mass (kg) |
Weight (N) |
|
A |
49 |
1225 |
|
B |
49 |
49 |
|
C |
5 |
49 |
|
D |
5 |
125 |
- What is the potential energy of a 1.0 kg mass 1.0 km above the surface of the Earth?
A. 9800J
B. 9800J
C. 6.27x107J
D. 6.27x107J
3. Luke was on a sailing boat and climbed to the top of the mast as a vantage point to get a better photo. The boat was moving forward at a steady 10 knots and Julie was watching from the shore. Unfortunately Luke dropped the camera. What path would the camera appear to follow as observed by Julie from the shore?
A. Parabolic path forwards.
B. Parabolic path backwards.
C. Straight line, vertically down.
D. Straight line, at an angle to the vertical.
4. Michelson & Morely performed an experiment in which they tried to demonstrate the existence of the aether. What was the reason put forward by scientists at that time to justify the existence of the aether?
A. Light waves needed a medium through which to travel.
B. The speed of light is the same in all directions.
C. The speed of light is independent of the motion of the source and observer.
D. Time dilation could not occur if there was no aether.
5. A satellite is in uniform circular motion about the Earth. What is the direction of the net force acting on the satellite at the instant shown in the diagram?
A.
B.
C.
D
6.
I1 I2
*P
I1
and I2 represent two wires, each carrying a current into the page.
The direction of the magnetic field at P is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
7. Which of the following changes will NOT produce a change in the torque of a coil in a magnetic field?
A. Changing the strength of the magnetic field.
B. Changing the magnitude of the current.
C. Changing the number of turns in the coil.
D. Changing the shape of the coil.
8. When is the magnetic flux cutting the coil of a simple D.C. electric motor greatest?
A. When the coil is parallel to the magnetic field.
B. When the coil is perpendicular to the magnetic field.
C. When the coil is at 45o to the magnetic field.
D. There is no variation of the magnetic flux cutting the coil.
9. Which of the following characteristics applies to an A.C. induction motor?
A. They have low efficiency, resulting in a lot of lost energy.
B. They have a stationary magnetic field.
C. Current is transferred to the coil by means of brushes and slip rings.
D. They can be adjusted to work on D.C. by changing the commutator.
10. An ideal transformer is one in which there is no power loss. However transformers are not ideal and the power output is less than the power input. What is the main reason for the loss in power of a step-up transformer?
A. The back emf opposes the supply emf in the secondary coil.
B. Eddy currents are produced in the core and produce heat energy.
C. What is gained in voltage is lost in current.
D. The wires in the secondary coil are thinner and cant carry as much current as the primary coil.
11. The band theory is a theory put forward to explain the behaviour of conductors, semiconductors and insulators. Which of the following statements about the band theory is correct?
A. Conductors have a full conduction band and an empty valency band.
B. Semiconductors have no electrons in the conduction band unless they are heated to overcome the forbidden energy gap.
C. Electrons in insulators cannot be made to overcome the forbidden energy gap.
D. Semiconductors have some electrons in the conduction band at room temperature.
12. Cathode rays are fired between the poles of magnets as shown.
What is the direction of the force on the cathode rays?
A. Towards the top of the page.
B. Towards the bottom of the page.
C. Towards the north pole of the magnet.
D. Towards the south pole of the magnet.
13. Sir William Henry Bragg and Sir William Laurence Bragg were awarded the Nobel Prize in 1915 for their work in determining crystal structure. What was the method they used to study the structure of crystals?
A. Diffraction of eleltrons.
B. Diffraction of X-rays.
C. Refraction of electrons.
D. Refraction of X-rays.
14. The point P lies above a beam of cathode rays moving to the right as shown.
*
P
cathode rays
What is the direction of the magnetic field at P due to the cathode rays?
A. Into the page
B. Out of the page.
C. Towards the right.
D. None as there is no magnetic field.
15. What would happen if a semiconductor such as silicon was doped with a small amount of a group V element such as arsenic?
A. It would gain a negative charge.
B. It would gain a positive charge.
C. It would remain neutral.
D. It would allow Cooper pairs of electrons to form.
NAME: .
PART B
The marks allocated to each question are shown.
Answer this Part in the spaces provided in your examination book
Show all necessary working.
Marks may be awarded for relevant working.
16. Pluto has a mass of 0.002 that of Earth and a radius 0.18 that of Earth.
(i) What is the value of the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of Pluto?
(2 marks)
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(ii) What would be the escape velocity from the surface of Pluto? (2 marks)
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17. The orbital velocity of a satellite in a stable orbit decreases as the distance from the centre of the Earth increases. Why is it that as a satellite slows down due to friction with low-density air, its distance from the centre of the Earth decreases as its orbital velocity decreases? (2 marks)
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18. Explain how the slingshot effect can be used to increase the speed of a spacecraft.
(3 marks)
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19. Describe the method used by Michelson & Morley in their attempt to measure the relative velocity of the Earth through the aether. (3 marks)
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20. Describe a thought experiment involving mirrors and trains and discuss the relationship between thought and reality. (5 marks)
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21. A spaceship which has a mass of 100 tonnes (105 kg) on Earth is travelling at 0.90c.
(i) What is its mass as observed by someone on Earth? (1 mark)
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(ii) How much work is required to accelerate the spaceship from 0.90c to 0.95c? (2 marks)
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22. This question refers to the following diagram.
A rectangular coil WXYZ is 20 cm long and 10 cm wide as shown. The coil has 200 turns of wire and lies parallel to a uniform magnetic field of 0.2 Tesla. A current of 5.0 amps flows through the coil in the direction WXYZ.
(i) Calculate the force on a single wire on the side WX. (2 marks)
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(ii) Calculate the torque due to the force on a single wire on the side WX. (1 mark)
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(iii) Calculate the total torque on the coil. (1 mark)
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23. (i) With the aid of a diagram, explain how induction is used in cooktops in electric
ranges. (2 marks)
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(ii) State one way in which induction electric cooktops are safer than conventional electric cooktops. (1 mark)
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(iii) William placed three saucepans of water on his new induction cooktop. After a few minutes the water in the cast iron saucepan was boiling furiously, the water in the aluminium saucepan was lukewarm and the water in the glass saucepan was cold. Explain why the water in the different saucepans heated by different amounts. (2 marks)
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24. Electricity is carried through transmission lines at high voltage to minimise energy loss. Explain how a high voltage will reduce energy loss. (3 marks)
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25. Describe how you could perform an investigation to model the generation of an electric current by moving a magnet in a coil or a coil near a magnet. Include a table showing possible results for the variables that you are investigating. (8 marks)
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26. Prior to Thomsons experiment in which he measured the charge to mass ratio of cathode rays, there was debate among scientists such as Hertz and Crookes as to whether cathode rays were particles or electromagnetic waves. Compare the evidence suggesting that cathode rays were particles with that suggesting that they were electromagnetic waves. (4 marks)
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27. (i) Describe Hertzs observation of the photoelectric effect. (2 marks)
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(ii) Explain how the photoelectric effect suggests that light consists of particles.
(3 marks)
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28. Compare the passage of electrons through aluminium at room temperature to that through aluminium below its critical temperature of 1.2K. (4 marks)
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29. How many photons of wavelength 600 nm would be required each second to produce a power output of 5 W? (2 marks)
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30. Describe how superconductors and the effects of magnetic fields have been applied to develop a maglev train. (3 marks)
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31. Assess the impact of transistors on society with particular reference to their use in microchips and microprocessors. (2 marks)
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OPTIONS.
ATTEMPT ONE
OPTION ONLY
Each option is
worth 25 marks.
ASTROPHYSICS
Attempt All
parts of this question.
32. (i) Calculate the distance in parsecs of a star that has a trigonometric parallax of
0.01 seconds of arc. (1 mark)
(ii) Outline how adaptive optics, interferometry and active optics can improve the resolution and/or sensitivity of ground-based telescopes. (3 marks)
(iii) Suppose you used an accurate spectroscope to examine light from the Sun, a tungsten filament lamp (normal light globe) and mercury vapour lamp. Outline the ways the spectra from these three sources would differ. (3 marks)
(iv) Compare the spectrum produced by a galaxy to that produced by a star such as the Sun. (2 marks)
(v) Hadar (b-Centauri) has an apparent magnitude of 0.60 and is 390 Pc away. What is its absolute magnitude? (2 marks)
(vi) What is photometry? (1 mark)
(vii) What advantages do photoelectric technologies have over photographic methods of photometry? (2 marks)
(viii) Distinguish between astrometric binary stars and spectroscopic binary stars.
(2 marks)
(ix) Omega Centauri is a globular cluster and Kappa Crucis (also known as the Jewel Box) is an open cluster. In what ways would these two clusters be different? (3 marks)
(x) With reference to the H-R diagram, discuss differences in the evolutionary track of stars of 1, 5 and 10 solar masses. (6 marks)
FROM QUANTA TO
QUARKS
Attempt All
parts of this question.
33. (i) Describe the
(ii) The limitations of classical physics gave birth to quantum physics. What is the difference between classical physics and quantum physics? (2 marks)
(iii) Hydrogen shows a large number of spectral lines, the visible ones being part of the Balmer series where nf = 2.
Calculate the frequency of radiation emitted when an electron drops from ni = 3 to nf = 2 and also from ni = 10 to nf = 2.
What type of radiation is emitted by the drop from ni = 10 to nf = 2? (3 marks)
(iv) What was de Broglies proposal and how was it confirmed by Davisson and Germer? (3 marks)
(v) How fast would an electron be moving if it had a wavelength of 10-10 m?
(2 marks)
(vi) Describe Fermis initial experimental observations of nuclear fission. (3 marks)
(vii) Name a radioactive isotope used in agriculture and describe its use. (2 marks)
(viii) Neutron scattering is a method used to study the structure of matter. Discuss the advantages and limitations of neutron scattering. (3 marks)
(ix) Outline the key features and components of the standard model of matter.
(6 marks)
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